Originally posted by radioraheem
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Mayweather's IV injection (Master thread)
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Originally posted by SamuraiSam View PostHey hey, good catch. I had a feeling my last sentence, the one uncertain question I had on mind but was too lazy & time constrained to research myself, would draw out some friendly soul to help me answer it.
I'll admit I haven't had the time to research the different testing protocols to learn exactly what substances each type of sample, blood & urine, is meant to detect. I just took time to look up the WADA code to formulate my post.
My line of thinking, when I first read that the USADA was present to take samples before and after the IV, was that the urine samples tested clean because they were testing urine, not the blood which was the biological fluid being infused and affected. My simplistic sense of logic was just telling me that comparing before and after samples of blood would show a difference in masked and unmasked blood values.
Then again, I could be wrong. You could be right and urine would detect changes in blood values. But now that I think further on it, if that's the case, wouldn't blood draws & testing be unnecessary under the WADA protocol and just urine would be sufficient for testing? LOL...more & more questions to make my head spin. Like I said, I haven't thoroughly researched the subject and I still have a lot to learn. I'll get to it one of these days.
Thanks for your input and giving me motivation to learn more on the subject.
Peace out.
The theory of masking PED usage with saline and multivitamins IV is only relevant for blood samples. And that's where that theory falls to pieces because these guys aren't taken into consideration urine samples. For reasons such as this, even guys like Victor Conte aren't foolish enough to believe that Mayweather was using PEDs or masking anything. Guys like him feel if he was indeed using PEDs, he would be doing something else entirely.
And that thing he would be doing different entirely, I haven't seen a single person here bring up. And if they do, again, it ruins their whole IV PED theory.
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Originally posted by Rath View Postthen why did USADA collector mix the before IV urine sample to that of After IV urine sample when Floyd was no longer that dehydrated and the sample is sufficient enough?
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Originally posted by radioraheem View PostBecause they had the option of getting a full sample. It wasn't a situation where they absolutely couldn't leave with a full sample, that only a partial could be done.
why the need of mixing the before IV urine sample?
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Originally posted by Rath View Postafter the IV of 750 ml floyd is no longer dehydrated that much and they can get as much urine sample as they pleased.
why the need of mixing the before IV urine sample?
One reason is because the first sampling can sometimes have a higher concentration to test for.
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Urine test are the easiest to pass. You just drink lots of water for about 5 hours, then take the test. Sound familiar?
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Originally posted by torosboxing75 View PostUrine test are the easiest to pass. You just drink lots of water for about 5 hours, then take the test. Sound familiar?
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Originally posted by radioraheem View PostThis is very incorrect. A saline and multivitamin IV cannot mask any PEDS in the urine. The urine sample will show the drug use, even a partial sample will expose the usage. That is why anti-doping agencies around the world take both blood and urine samples, and with a higher emphasis on urine samples.
But the unique thing about the ban on IV use is the motive behind it. While fighters are known for using it to rehydrate, the primary reason it shows up on WADAs prohibited list is its use in banned blood doping procedures, as well as the likelihood that it may be used to manipulate plasma levels to mask other drug use.
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