Originally posted by radioraheem
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Mayweather's IV injection (Master thread)
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Originally posted by Vadrigar. View PostWhy? It's worked fine for Lance Armstrong.
Think of it like this. If it was so easy to just take saline and multivitamins to mask a urine sample, you don't even need an IV to do that. You can just simply drink down a few glasses and magically the PEDs are gone.
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Originally posted by radioraheem View PostFor blood, not for URINE.
Think of it like this. If it was so easy to just take saline and multivitamins to mask a urine sample, you don't even need an IV to do that. You can just simply drink down a few glasses and magically the PEDs are gone.
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Originally posted by radioraheem View PostSynthetic urine substitute is not saline and multivitamins.
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Does this look like a severely dehydrated man who needs 750 ml of IV hydration than just the normal way of drinking which is to hydrate using oral hydration?
Is this a look of a man who needs to go to the Hospital? Is this a man who is so sick he can't open his mouth to drink Gatorade?
BIG FAT NOPELast edited by Spoon23; 09-19-2015, 06:35 PM.
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Originally posted by SamuraiSam View PostI won't assume I'm addressing an alt account created (hmmm...May 2015...coincidence?) after mistakes were made and TMT had to prepare themselves for damage control after it's found out weeks later they had to retroactively file for a TUE to cover their ass. No, I won't assume you're part of the damage control team tasked to "educate" the people if/when a ****storm arises from the revelation; so, nothing personal in this reply, okay? Ooops.
From everything I've read so far, the key issue with Floyd boils down to this TUE that was granted, and in his case, the RETROACTIVE TUE submitted weeks later.
Let me make an analogy based on my experience in processing medical claims in the insurance industry.
When a medical patient requires certain treatments that might not be covered by their insurance policy, they file a pre-authorization request for medical review & approval based on medical necessity. That's all done prior to the hospital admission to get the procedure done. This would be analogous to applying for a TUE prior to undergoing procedures regulated by WADA's code on prohibited substances/methods. For example, if a boxer truly suffers from Androgen Deficiency-Male Hypogonadism (one of the medical conditions listed on the website reviewable for TUE), a TUE could be granted to treat low testosterone.
When a patient has a medical emergency and seeks treatment in an out-of-area or out-of-network hospital (assuming they're on an HMO plan instead of PPO), a concurrent or retroactive review is done after the admission, to evaluate the medical necessity of the admission, to determine if it was a true medical emergency necessitating immediate treatment. The review is done after the fact. This would be analagous to applying for the retroactive TUE. It's done retroactively because there was urgency or medical necessity requiring the immediate treatment, and there was insufficient time to get pre-authorization. The key words here are "medical emergency." Was Floyd's TUE due to a medical emergency?
You talk about people "cherry picking," yet that is exactly what you've done here in your own attempt at "propaganda." You state, "Here are is the actual code from WADA:" and then proceed to cherry-pick only two paragraphs from the code without further elaboration, and leaving them out of context to the rest of the WADA code.
For anyone who wants to review the full code themselves, go to:
On that page, there's a download link for a pdf entitled "wada_medical_info_iv_infusions_4.0_en.pdf", or you can just enter this url to get the download:
As anyone can see, you copied/pasted the last two paragraphs under section "1. Introduction" with no further elaboration, and ignoring the rest of the sections of the code. We'll get to them later.
Now, the second paragraph you list from the code does not even apply in Floyd's case since the saline/vitamins is NOT a "Prohibited Substance." Curiously, that's the case where a retroactive TUE is acceptable. It makes sense because a prohibited substance may be introduced because of a true medical emergency.
The first paragraph you list says NOTHING about a retroactive TUE being acceptable; but a TUE is required by Floyd since it is a "Prohibited Method" because "more than 50 mL of fluid per a 6-hour period is infused." It's also inferred that the volume Floyd infused would have been acceptable IF it was during "a concurrent hospital admission, surgical procedure or clinical investigation," in which case a TUE is NOT required because there is an apparent medical emergency. But that wasn't Floyd's case, was it? No, he did it in the comfort of home. Thus, he broke WADA's code.
My guess is that they realized too late that they misinterpreted the code so they scrambled weeks later to get the TUE retroactively (and you were enlisted for damage control to "educate" us...LOL).
To be continued...I have to split this post because the system gave me an error message: "The text that you have entered is too long (10636 characters). Please shorten it to 10000 characters long."Originally posted by SamuraiSam View PostContinued:
Okay, now that everyone has the full WADA pdf to cross-reference, I can save time & space not having to copy/paste the relevant sections of the code here, and I can ask the following questions:
Relating to section "2. Diagnosis"
1. Does Floyd have a documented medical history of chronic dehydration necessitating medical intervention & IV infusion?
2. Who was the treating physician? (I don't think Memo & Ariza have medical degrees; and I doubt the USADA reps were licensed MDs.)
3. Is Floyd & the USADA willing to show the copy of the TUE application? If so & they have nothing to hide, will the application clearly show the precise description of the clinical situation & specific medical indication for the IV infusion; the name of the treating physician; the ICD-10 code E86.0 or E87.1; and all the other relevant medical information listed in sub-section C?
4. Why was oral rehydration not a valid option? What was the existing co-morbidity that ruled it out as an option?
Relating to section "3. Medical best practice treatment"
1. Was Floyd experiencing a medical emergency? (He obviously was not under inpatient care, in which case the volume he infused would not have required a TUE, retroactive or not.)
2. What is the supporting evidence that no alternative treatment (i.e.--drinking orally) could have been used?
3. Who was the ordering physician, and who were the qualified medical personnel to perform the treatment?
4. Why wasn't the infusion done in an appropriate medical setting instead of at home?
The following paragraph in this section is significantly telling:
The use of IV infusions in sport is commonly linked with rehydration after
exhaustive effort, and this situation is arguably the major cause of debate. It
must be understood that the use of IV fluid replacement following exercise to
correct mild to moderate dehydration is not clinically indicated nor substantiated
by the medical literature. There is a well-established body of scientific evidence
to confirm that oral rehydration is the preferred the****utic choice, potentially
even more effective than IV infusion.
(Ref: 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16)
Relating to section "5. Consequences to health if treatment withheld"
1. Was Floyd truly in a state of medical emergency, where serious harm or death would occur without immediate medical intervention with an infusion?
[If I recall correctly from video of his weigh-in, he was able to easily walk around unassisted. Some truly dehydrated fighters have to remain sitting, lacking the strength to stand, so much as walk around...and they might be candidates for IV infusions. And I assume he was orally re-hydrating too immediately after the weigh-in; he seems to always have a bottle of water when he's conducting interviews.]
2. Observing Floyd's physical demeanor during the weigh-in, we can accept he might have had "mild to moderate" dehydration. So it begs the question...what additional physical training did he do after the weigh-in and before going home that dehydrated him beyond a "mild to moderate" level, creating a medical emergency requiring an IV infusion?
The rest of the sections are self-explanatory.
Anyway, in conclusion, based on the IV infusion apparently not being a medical emergency (in which case there should have been a hospital admission, and over 50ml infusion allowable without a TUE), we can conclude that Floyd broke WADA code...and the IV was intended to mask or alter his biological blood values. And the USADA did not correctly uphold & enforce the WADA code, to which they are signatory. And I still question, if the story is true, why USADA would only take urine samples before and after observing a procedure that potentially affects blood values.
'Nuff said.
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