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Mayweather's IV injection (Master thread)

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    That's the way to go out Champ, my a$$

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      Originally posted by SamuraiSam View Post

      Anyway, in conclusion, based on the IV infusion apparently not being a medical emergency (in which case there should have been a hospital admission, and over 50ml infusion allowable without a TUE), we can conclude that Floyd broke WADA code...and the IV was intended to mask or alter his biological blood values. And the USADA did not correctly uphold & enforce the WADA code, to which they are signatory. And I still question, if the story is true, why USADA would only take urine samples before and after observing a procedure that potentially affects blood values.

      'Nuff said.
      This is a great post and I agree with everything you said except the last bit. Since Floyd was masking his blood values, then wouldn't taking blood samples be redundant? (The 750ml IV would be used to specifically fool a blood test.)

      Taking urine samples instead of blood samples would be appropriate in this case. But I'm not sure if the IV can also fool a urine test. Can it?

      Comment


        Originally posted by Vadrigar. View Post
        This is a great post and I agree with everything you said except the last bit. Since Floyd was masking his blood values, then wouldn't taking blood samples be redundant? (The 750ml IV would be used to specifically fool a blood test.)

        Taking urine samples instead of blood samples would be appropriate in this case. But I'm not sure if the IV can also fool a urine test. Can it?
        They couldn't get Floyd to produce the minimum amount of urine needed for a conclusive drug test result. It wasn't until after the IVs had already been administered that they were able to collect a full sample.

        Both partial samples were mixed together to meet the required amount needed for an accurate urine analysis. The diluted sample would have made up the bulk of the two, which in turn, would have successfully masked any prohibited substance from being detected.

        Comment


          Originally posted by Vadrigar. View Post
          This is a great post and I agree with everything you said except the last bit. Since Floyd was masking his blood values, then wouldn't taking blood samples be redundant? (The 750ml IV would be used to specifically fool a blood test.)

          Taking urine samples instead of blood samples would be appropriate in this case. But I'm not sure if the IV can also fool a urine test. Can it?
          Hey hey, good catch. I had a feeling my last sentence, the one uncertain question I had on mind but was too lazy & time constrained to research myself, would draw out some friendly soul to help me answer it.

          I'll admit I haven't had the time to research the different testing protocols to learn exactly what substances each type of sample, blood & urine, is meant to detect. I just took time to look up the WADA code to formulate my post.

          My line of thinking, when I first read that the USADA was present to take samples before and after the IV, was that the urine samples tested clean because they were testing urine, not the blood which was the biological fluid being infused and affected. My simplistic sense of logic was just telling me that comparing before and after samples of blood would show a difference in masked and unmasked blood values.

          Then again, I could be wrong. You could be right and urine would detect changes in blood values. But now that I think further on it, if that's the case, wouldn't blood draws & testing be unnecessary under the WADA protocol and just urine would be sufficient for testing? LOL...more & more questions to make my head spin. Like I said, I haven't thoroughly researched the subject and I still have a lot to learn. I'll get to it one of these days.

          Thanks for your input and giving me motivation to learn more on the subject.

          Peace out.

          Comment


            ^ A urinalysis can be diluted, yes, if the client intakes plenty of fluids beforehand.

            Comment


              Originally posted by IR0NFIST View Post
              They couldn't get Floyd to produce the minimum amount of urine needed for a conclusive drug test result. It wasn't until after the IVs had already been administered that they were able to collect a full sample.

              Both partial samples were mixed together to meet the required amount needed for an accurate urine analysis. The diluted sample would have made up the bulk of the two, which in turn, would have successfully masked any prohibited substance from being detected.

              Interesting. So that's how it works. Thanks for the information. It gives me a start in learning the different methods & terms...masking, dilution, etc.

              Comment


                Originally posted by hardvibes View Post
                Paramedic and stuff??? What the hell are they talking about??

                Do Floyd and Ellerbe sound like they're explaining it was a big emergency?? AHAHAHAHAHAHAHA

                Listen! So many LIES

                LOL. their faces say it all.

                man that dude is always surrounded by a bunch of money grubbing dlckriders,
                you can almost see $dollar signs$ in their eyes as they spew their BS.

                Comment


                  Originally posted by Vadrigar. View Post
                  This is a great post and I agree with everything you said except the last bit. Since Floyd was masking his blood values, then wouldn't taking blood samples be redundant? (The 750ml IV would be used to specifically fool a blood test.)

                  Taking urine samples instead of blood samples would be appropriate in this case. But I'm not sure if the IV can also fool a urine test. Can it?
                  he's right.

                  collecting blood sample before the IV was administered was the better way to do since Floyd can not give enough amount of urine sample. it was Floyd who don't want cut off dates for blood test until the day of the fight right?

                  and how smart are the USADA collector to mix the urine sample taken before IV when the after IV urine sample is sufficient enough?
                  Last edited by Rath; 09-19-2015, 02:57 PM.

                  Comment


                    Originally posted by IR0NFIST View Post
                    They couldn't get Floyd to produce the minimum amount of urine needed for a conclusive drug test result. It wasn't until after the IVs had already been administered that they were able to collect a full sample.

                    Both partial samples were mixed together to meet the required amount needed for an accurate urine analysis. The diluted sample would have made up the bulk of the two, which in turn, would have successfully masked any prohibited substance from being detected.

                    This is very incorrect. A saline and multivitamin IV cannot mask any PEDS in the urine. The urine sample will show the drug use, even a partial sample will expose the usage. That is why anti-doping agencies around the world take both blood and urine samples, and with a higher emphasis on urine samples.

                    Comment


                      Originally posted by SamuraiSam View Post
                      Continued:

                      Okay, now that everyone has the full WADA pdf to cross-reference, I can save time & space not having to copy/paste the relevant sections of the code here, and I can ask the following questions:

                      Relating to section "2. Diagnosis"

                      1. Does Floyd have a documented medical history of chronic dehydration necessitating medical intervention & IV infusion?
                      2. Who was the treating physician? (I don't think Memo & Ariza have medical degrees; and I doubt the USADA reps were licensed MDs.)
                      3. Is Floyd & the USADA willing to show the copy of the TUE application? If so & they have nothing to hide, will the application clearly show the precise description of the clinical situation & specific medical indication for the IV infusion; the name of the treating physician; the ICD-10 code E86.0 or E87.1; and all the other relevant medical information listed in sub-section C?
                      4. Why was oral rehydration not a valid option? What was the existing co-morbidity that ruled it out as an option?


                      Relating to section "3. Medical best practice treatment"

                      1. Was Floyd experiencing a medical emergency? (He obviously was not under inpatient care, in which case the volume he infused would not have required a TUE, retroactive or not.)
                      2. What is the supporting evidence that no alternative treatment (i.e.--drinking orally) could have been used?
                      3. Who was the ordering physician, and who were the qualified medical personnel to perform the treatment?
                      4. Why wasn't the infusion done in an appropriate medical setting instead of at home?

                      The following paragraph in this section is significantly telling:

                      The use of IV infusions in sport is commonly linked with rehydration after
                      exhaustive effort, and this situation is arguably the major cause of debate. It
                      must be understood that the use of IV fluid replacement following exercise to
                      correct mild to moderate dehydration is not clinically indicated nor substantiated
                      by the medical literature. There is a well-established body of scientific evidence
                      to confirm that oral rehydration is the preferred the****utic choice, potentially
                      even more effective than IV infusion.
                      (Ref: 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16)


                      Relating to section "5. Consequences to health if treatment withheld"

                      1. Was Floyd truly in a state of medical emergency, where serious harm or death would occur without immediate medical intervention with an infusion?

                      [If I recall correctly from video of his weigh-in, he was able to easily walk around unassisted. Some truly dehydrated fighters have to remain sitting, lacking the strength to stand, so much as walk around...and they might be candidates for IV infusions. And I assume he was orally re-hydrating too immediately after the weigh-in; he seems to always have a bottle of water when he's conducting interviews.]

                      2. Observing Floyd's physical demeanor during the weigh-in, we can accept he might have had "mild to moderate" dehydration. So it begs the question...what additional physical training did he do after the weigh-in and before going home that dehydrated him beyond a "mild to moderate" level, creating a medical emergency requiring an IV infusion?


                      The rest of the sections are self-explanatory.

                      Anyway, in conclusion, based on the IV infusion apparently not being a medical emergency (in which case there should have been a hospital admission, and over 50ml infusion allowable without a TUE), we can conclude that Floyd broke WADA code...and the IV was intended to mask or alter his biological blood values. And the USADA did not correctly uphold & enforce the WADA code, to which they are signatory. And I still question, if the story is true, why USADA would only take urine samples before and after observing a procedure that potentially affects blood values.

                      'Nuff said.
                      Am I at the floyd groupie funeral? Samuraisam just buried all of them! LMAO!!!

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