The lands were those people lived before Israel was created.
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*********s running the show
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In much lesser numbers, and were not in political power. That land has for millenia been in ****** and Arab hands. They claim is legitimate.
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Originally posted by angelo_dundeeIn much lesser numbers, and were not in political power. That land has for millenia been in ****** and Arab hands. They claim is legitimate.
Also, when did ********* become a country?
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Don't get me wrong, I really don't care about either side. But to say ONE side has a more legitimate claim than the other is ridiculous. The land has been conquered, reconquered and conquered again so many times.
If ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS are legitimate, then Italy has a legitimate claim to the land too!
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Originally posted by LuKahnLiThe only reason the ***'s numbers were less was because the Roman emporer Hadrian expelled them, following an insurrection.
Also, when did ********* become a country?
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Originally posted by angelo_dundee********* has always been a recognized land. The Ottoman sultans who ruled the area for 6 centuries, and the ******s who ruled it before that, always gave due recognition to its people.
The Ottoman empire CONQUERED the land from the ******s that were there before. The ******s that were there before CONQUERED the land from the Romans. The Romans CONQUERED the land from the ***s and the Phillistines.
This "who had it first" excercise is FUTILE. NOBODY'S CLAIM IS ANY MORE LEGIT THAN ANYONE ELSE'S.
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Even that position means that Israel cannot deny the *********** claim then.
Frankly, Israel is a sore.
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Originally posted by angelo_dundeeEven that position means that Israel cannot deny the *********** claim then.
Frankly, Israel is a sore.
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