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Why in the hell did Jim Lampley keep saying over and over that JMM is P4P # 2???

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    #41
    Cuz he is, and cuz he was tryin to make a point to Kellerman.

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      #42
      Originally posted by Vladimir303 View Post
      Lost a close decision just as JMM lost a close decision to Pacman.

      But then B-Hop bounced back and beat a Top 10 P4P, unbeaten young middleweight champion.....dominating him. Was Casamayor top 10 P4P like Pavlik


      That beats Marquez's victory over a old ass Casamayor who should've lost his linear title 2 fights ago on a undercard.
      Pavlik p4p??not yet so Marquez is p4p b cuz in my score cards he defeated pacman twice.hands down p4p!!

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        #43
        Mostly likely Lampley wasnt making a value judgement of his own. He was most likely quoting Ring ****zine and other publications lists where JMM continued to be listed as #2.

        Perhaps you should start your own ****zine, and send Lamps complimentary copies.

        A better question is, why do they give Kellerman free reign to twist history however he likes by proclaiming who he thinks won past fights. Also, claiming massive majorities of people see it his way when it is far from the case?

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