Originally posted by dan_cov
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Everything after that is really irrelevant because from that moment on, Wladimir was ****ed!
How can you claim that one fighter had the others number under these conditions?
How can you claim one fighter had the others number when they only fought once for a total of less than 2 rounds?
How can you claim one fighter had the others number when one of them CLEARLY underestimated the opponent?
How can you claim one fighter had the others number when each time Wladimir lost he strikingly altered his style?
What a silly comment!
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